An analysis by Stat News says the opposite. Who's right? My understanding is that Democrats, and this is what I said, Democrats prior to the Affordable Care act, before, Democrats prior to the Affordable Care act were reluctant to take pharmaceutical money. And so Republicans were getting more money than them. And after the Affordable Care act, or during that battle, it became permissible suddenly for Democrats to take pharmaceutical money because the pharmaceutical. (51:03–51:17)
CLAIM
Asserts that before the Affordable Care Act, Democrats were hesitant to accept pharmaceutical money.
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